Adelphoi

     The  noun  Adelphos  in  its  various forms occurs approximately 343
times in the Greek N.T. It is sometimes used in its literal sense to mean a
"brother;" one from the same womb. (John 1:41) It can also mean "one who
shares   a  common  ethnic  heritage.  (Acts 22:13).  It  sometimes   means
"neighbor." (Mat. 7:3-5) It can also refer to "one who shares the same faith
in Christ; a fellow-believer." (Col. 4:7)

      Adelphoi, the  plural  form of  adelphos  is  used  frequently  in the
Greek N.T. of spiritual siblings in the family of God. Males and females
who have believed, repented, confessed, and were immersed into Christ
(Gal. 3:26-29) They were "born again," (Jno. 3:3-5; Tit. 3:5-7), and are
therefore adopted into the family of God. (Eph. 1:5; 1 Tim. 3:15) Adelphoi 
identifies those who are in this spiritual relationship as "brothers and sisters."

     The older English versions (KJV, RV, ASV) and some relatively recent
versions (NASB, RSV, NKJV) translate adelphoi with the word "brethren."
This word is generally used only in religious circles. Other versions such as
the original NIV, ESV, and HCSB use the word  "brothers." One of the
problems with using "brethren" is the fact that it is a somewhat archaic
word. Many times "brothers" is too  gender specific. The  modern reader
may be misled into thinking only males are being addressed in certain
contexts, when in reality they are not. So, modern English versions, in an
effort to be accurate, especially when a congregation is addressed translate 
adelphoi with the phrase "brothers and sisters." (cf. New Living Translation;
New Revised Standard  Version; NET;  Today's  New  International
Version; and the NIV 2011)

     Some people object to translating adelphoi with the phrase "brothers
and sisters," because in their view it is an effort to be "gender inclusive,"
and to give women equal roles and authority with men in religion. This is
an unfair judgment. The N.T. itself teaches that God does not give a woman
the right to "have authority over the man." (1 Cor. 14:34-35;1 Tim. 2:11-15)
The  phrase "brothers and sisters" (adelphoi) is not designed to blur the
distinctive  roles that God has assigned to men and women, but it seeks to
accurately  convey  the  meaning  of  adelphoi  by  indicating the familial
relationship shared by those of the same faith.

     It has long been proven by Greek lexicons that adelphos/adelphoi are
used in this manner in secular Greek literature and in the N.T. (Thayer's 
Greek-English Lexicon, pages 10-11; Alexander Souter's Pocket 
Lexicon, p. 6; A Greek-English Lexicon Of The New Testament And 
Other Early Christian Literature, Introduction, p. 24 and pages 15-16
of the lexicon,1952 edition.)

     It is accurate to translate adelphoi with the phrase "brothers and sisters"
when  a  congregation  is  addressed, when  the  universal  group of Jesus'
followers is under discussion, and when it can be shown from the context
that  a  religious  group  consisting  of  both  males  and  females  is  under
consideration. Translators have not accurately translated God's word, until
they   have  selected    the   word  or   phrase  in    the   target   language,
that means the same as the word or phrase in the source language. They
must also convey the meaning in an understandable manner. "Brothers and
sisters"  for   adelphoi   in   English   translations   is   both  accurate  and
understandable. A gentleman who objected to the rendering "brothers and
sisters"  was  asked  which  translation  of adelphoi  he believed to be the
correct one, and he responded, "Brethren." He was then asked "What does
'brethren' mean, and he replied, "Brothers and sisters."

                                                                                                 R. Daly

Copyright 2011

     
        

Do Not Rebuke an Elder

     The American Standard Version translates the first part of
1 Timothy 5:1 in this way, "Rebuke not an elder." This reflects
the policy of the ASV translators to be as literal as possible, and
to use one English word for one Hebrew word in the O.T., and
one English word for one Greek word in the N.T. when possible.
This policy has inherent problems of its own, though one scholar
wrote the following about the ASV, "So far as English versions
are concerned, the reader who wants an accurate word for word
translation has in the Revised Version or American Standard
Version the best of its kind that is ever likely to be provided."
(Bruce, F.F.,  The Books and the Parchments, page 235) I
wholeheartedly concur with Bruce's assessment of the ASV. The
ASV has no equal as  far as the modified  literal  approach  to
translation is concerned.

     What does the word "elder" mean in 1 Tim. 5:1? It translates
the Greek presbutero, dative masculine singular of presbuteros.
Presbuteros is used in a number of ways in the New Testament.
It  may  refer  to  members of  the Sanhedrin (presbuterous ton 
Ioudaion, elders of the Jews) Luke 7:3; the 24 members of the
heavenly court (hoi eikosi tessares presbuteroi) Revelation 5:8;
men  who were appointed  to  preside over and   shepherd  local
assemblies  of  Christians  (tous presbuterous tes ekklesias, the
elders  of  the congregation) Acts 20:17 ;1 Timothy 5:17-19; and
those  who  are   advanced  in  life  (hoi  presbuteroi, old  men)
Acts 2:17.

     The meaning of "elder" in verse 1 is "old man." We can be
certain that this is correct because of the "contextual indicators."
There is an antithesis which exists between "an elder" who is to be
exhorted "as a father," and "younger men" who are to be exhorted
"as brothers" (neoteras hos adelphous). So, "elder" (presbuteros)
is used in contrast to "younger" (neos). Whatever "elder" means,
"younger" is the opposite, and whatever "younger" means, "elder"
is the opposite. Furthermore, Paul continues by contrasting "elder
women as mothers" (presbuteras hos meteras), and exhorting
"younger women as sisters" (neoteras hos adelphas). The "elder"
of verse 1 denotes the same thing as "elder women" of verse 2,
except for the distinction in gender. "Younger men" likewise
denotes the same thing as "younger women" excepting the gender
distinction. Also, there is a parallelism which exists between "elder"
of 1 Timothy 5:1, and the language of the same apostle elsewhere.
In Titus 2:2, Paul exhorts Titus that he, in speaking sound teaching,
inform "aged men" (presbutas) of their duties, and "aged women"
(presbutidas) of their duty to teach the "young women"
(tas neas, vv. 3,4).

     We find the same use of "elder" by the apostle Peter. "Likewise,
you who are younger (neoteroi), be subject to older ones
(presbuterois)" (1 Pet. 5:5). Note again the antithesis between
"younger" and "elder."

     What is the significance of the injunction "do not rebuke an
elder" expressed by the negative imperative (me epiplexes)?
May we not "rebuke" all who are in error, and who persist in sin
or rebellion against God, whether young or old? According to
other texts we may (Matt. 18:15-18; Lk. 17:3-4; 1 Tim. 5:20;
2 Tim. 4:2). So, why does the Holy Spirit through Paul, so
emphatically  say  to  Timothy  "do not  to  rebuke  an  elder"?
The key is in the word "rebuke." It is not the same word used in
2 Timothy 4:2.

     The word used in 2 Timothy is epitimao. Contextually, epitimao 
means "to censure  and  render a sharp rebuke" by the teaching of
the word. "Rebuke" in 1 Timothy 5 is from the Greek epiplesso
which means to reprimand, to strike (verbally), to assault with
abusive speech, to chastise with words, to reproach or denounce.
In the context, Paul informed Timothy about proper conduct
among believers, which he as an evangelist must practice. One
of the orders given to Timothy was, "Don't let anyone look down
on you because you are young..." (1 Tim. 4:12; NIV2011). This
entailed  treating  old men and old women with respect. An Old
Testament text contains the concept, "You shall stand up in the
presence of  the  elderly, and  show  respect for the elderly and
revere your God; I  am  Yahweh." (Lev. 19:32) Timothy was to
show respect for  the elderly, and not lash out with harsh words,
but have a tongue tempered by love and gentleness.

     Instead of the phrase "Rebuke not an elder," as in the ASV,
the recent versions say, "Don't criticize an older man" (Simple
English Bible), "Never be harsh with an elder" (New English Bible),
"Never censure an older man harshly" (James Moffatt Translation),
"Do not sharply rebuke an older man" (NASV), "Do not speak
harshly to an older man" (NRSV), "Do not reprimand an older
man" (McCord's New Testament Translation), "Do not rebuke
an older man harshly" NIV. This shows why it is important to
study from more than one translation. Comparative translation
study opens up vast opportunities for spiritual growth!

     The expression "Do not rebuke an elder" does not restrict or
forbid the younger from correcting the older brothers in the Lord
who err, but it does teach that there is a proper way to do it. And,
the way  is  not  by  ridicule and  harshness,  but  "as fathers and
mothers," that is, with genuine concern and kindness, attempting to
win them by snatching them out of the devil's grasp!
                                                                                                RD

Copyright 2011                                   

Son of Man

     The phrase "son of man" (ben adam) is an idiom. It is used approximately
107 times in the Hebrew Bible. It is found 93 times in Ezekiel 2:1-47:6. In
each instance ben adam is literally translated in the Septuagint with the Greek
phrase huios anthropou.

     Yahweh called the prophet Ezekiel "son of man" in order to focus on the
prophet's humanity. It is equivalent to saying "O man," or "mortal" (NRSV)
Ezekiel is a human being in contrast to the Sovereign, eternal God, the creator
of all. Yahweh is not "a son of man" (ben adam) that he should change his
mind." (Num. 23:19) God is not a mortal or a human being. Yahweh spoke to
the nation of Israel, the people of God,  through Ezekiel, a human being, a man
of the same class as those to whom he prophesied.

     In one of the Aramaic portions of the Old Testament, the prophet Daniel
spoke of one like "a son of man" (kebar enas) who came "with the clouds
of heaven...to the Ancient of Days and was presented before him. And to him
was given dominion and glory and a kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and
languages should serve him; his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which
shall  not  pass  away, and  his  kingdom one that  shall not be destroyed."
(Dan. 7:13-14; ESV) Bar enas emphasizes the humanity of the person
described  by  Daniel. He  is  like a "son of man", that is, a member of the
genus human being.

     The idiom  "Son of Man" (huios anthropou) occurs more than 80 times
in the Greek N.T. It  is found 14 times in Mark, 30 in Matthew, 25 in Luke,
12 in John, 1 in Acts, and  it  is used  with homois in Rev. 1:13 and 14:14.
Jesus is the "Son of Man" in that he was "made like his brothers in every
respect, so that he might become a merciful and faithful high priest in the
service of God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people." (Heb. 2:17;
ESV) But, there is more.

     As the "Son of Man" the Father has given him authority to execute judgment.
(Jno. 5:27) The Son of Man is identified with Yahweh. He is the "I Am." (Jno.
8:58; Ex. 3:14; Isa. 43:25) The Son of Man came down from heaven to be the
atoning sacrifice for the sins of the whole world. (Jno. 3:13; 6:62) He is "the Lamb
of God;" the perfect sacrifice for the sins of humanity. (Jno. 1:29) The suffering
of the Son of Man is connected with the figure of the righteous servant of Yahweh
in Isa. 52:13-53:12. "He committed no sin, neither was deceit found in his mouth."
(1 Pet. 2:22) He was conceived in and born of a virgin (Mat. 1:23; Lk. 1:27,34)
Acknowledging the Son of Man will lead to being acknowledged in the presence
of the Father. (Mat. 10:32) "The Son of Man came to seek and save the lost."
(Lk. 19:10) The angel reminded the disciples at the empty tomb, "that the Son of
Man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men and be crucified and rise on
the third day." (Lk. 24:7) He who was the Word in eternity "became flesh" and
died for the sins of the human race. (Jno. 1:14) He has received his kingdom,
glory, and honor, and he sits at the right hand of God. (Dan. 7:13-14; Heb. 1:3;
1 Pet. 3:22)

     Jesus is the "Son of Man" in that he was the perfect human being, truly human,
the ideal human being, the par excellent  human  being;  a  descendant  of  David
according to the flesh. (Mat. 22:42; Rom. 1:3) The "Son of Man" is the Messiah!
                                                                                                               RD

Copyright 2011

Baptisma

     The word baptisma is a noun and it occurs 19 times in the Greek N.T.
The English translations represent it as "baptism" in the various passages
where it is found. The word "baptism" is actually a gloss, that is, a misleading
interpretation and not a true translation of baptisma. The translators drop
the "alpha" from the end of the word and bring it over as "baptism." The
problem is, baptisma does not mean "baptism." That is like saying, "theos"
means "theos" or "ekklesia" means "ekklesia."

     Baptisma means "immersion, submersion, plunging, or dipping." Most of
the older and modern Greek lexicons define it as such and most of them cite
evidence from the ancient Greek writings as proof. We will examine a notable
exception at the end of this study.

     Among the older lexicons are A Greek and English Lexicon Of The 
New Testament by Edward Robinson, 1879 edition, page 119; A Greek-
English Lexicon Of The New Testament (Clavis Novi Testamenti
Philologica of C.G. Wilke/C.L. Grimm), translated, revised, and enlarged by
Joseph Henry Thayer, 1889 edition, page 94; Greek-English Lexicon To 
The New Testament, a new edition with additions and alterations, revised by
Thomas Sheldon Green, page 29. 

     The more recent lexicons are Greek-English Lexicon With a Revised
Supplement, compiled by Henry George Liddell and Robert Scott, revised
and augmented by Henry Stuart Jones, Roderick McKenzie and many scholars,
1996 edition, pages 305-306; Theological Dictionary Of The New 
Testament, volume 1, page 945; A Patristic Greek Lexicon, edited by
G.W.H. Lampe, page 284; and A Greek-English Lexicon Of The New 
Testament And Other Early Christian Literature, Walter Bauer-Frederick
Danker-W.F. Arndt-F.W. Gingrich, third edition (2000), page 165.

     Baptisma is used literally in the N.T. regarding salvation in Christ when
water is the element. (1 Peter 3:20-21; cf. Acts 10:47 where the verb form  
baptizo is used.) It is also used figuratively in the N.T. Jesus speaks of being
"immersed with the immersion with which I am immersed." (Mark 10:38) This
refers to Jesus' sufferings and death. Jesus says, "I have an immersion to be
immersed with..." (Luke 12:50) The meaning is to be inundated, overwhelmed,
or immersed in suffering or persecution.

     The lexicons are correct in their definitions of baptisma. This is clear from
the complimentary metaphors that Paul uses in his letter to the Romans. He
speaks of  being "buried with him through immersion." (sunetaphemen oun 
auto dia tou baptismatos). There is no burial signified by sprinkling and pouring.
A burial is pictured in immersion. As Christ was raised from the dead through the
glory of the Father, so we rise from the act of immersion in water to walk in
newness of life. Paul says the same thing to the brothers and sisters in Colossae.
(Col. 2:12)

     The N.T. also records complimentary literal phrases that prove the action
is immersion. Acts 8:38-39 Luke says, "And they both went down into the 
water (kai katebesan amphoteroi eis to hudor), Philip and the eunuch, and
he immersed him. And when they came up out of the water (hote de anebesan 
ek tou hudatos), the Spirit of the Lord carried Philip away..." Notice that the text
says they "went down into the water and came up out of the water. Neither
sprinkling nor pouring necessitates these actions; immersion does.

     It is interesting to note that the Greek-English Lexicon Of The New 
Testament Based On Semantic Domains, by Johannes P. Louw and Eugene
A. Nida, volume 1, page 537, defines baptizo, baptisma, and baptismos as "to
employ water in a religious ceremony designed to symbolize purification and
initiation on the basis of repentance..." It is not without theological prejudice that
they use the generic phrase "to employ water in a religious ceremony." This allows
a broad range of interpretation that includes sprinkling, pouring, and/or immersion.
The N.T. use of baptizo, baptisma, or baptismos does not allow such a broad
range of interpretation. Their definition of those words is incorrect. Other lexical
evidence and more importantly N.T. contextual evidence shows the wisdom
of "not risking the family farm" on the testimony of prejudicial sources. Lexicons
are important tools for studying the original languages of sacred scripture, but
they must be used with discretion.
                                                                                                           RD

Copyright 2011

Doulos

     Doulos is found in several documents of Greek antiquity. It appears
in  Herodotus  (5th century B.C.),  the inscriptions,  the  papyri, Philo,
Josephus, etc.

     Doulos occurs more than 300 times in the Septuagint. It occurs
124 times in the Greek New Testament.  Doulos is a theologically
significant word. The Hebrew word 'ebed is a close correspondent to
doulos.  'Ebed carries a range of meaning such as servant, official,
slave. The Greek doulos literally means slave, one who is "owned
property totally and unquestionably at the behest of the   owner." 
(Concise Greek-English   Lexicon   of   the   New Testament,
F. W. Danker, page 101) 

     In  ancient  society  slaves  were  sometimes  captives  of  war.
(Deut. 20:10-18); sometimes foreigners who were bought and sold.
(Lev. 25:44-46); others  were  sold  into  slavery  because  they
defaulted   on   debts   they   owed.  (Ex. 21:2-4;  Deut. 15:12;
1 Sam. 22:3);  others  were  acquired  as  a  gift.  (Gen. 29:24).
Non-Hebrew slaves could be passed on from one generation to
the next. (Lev. 25:44-46). Others could become slaves by birth.
(Ex. 21:4; Lev. 25:54)

    In the N.T. doulos is sometimes used literally. (Eph. 6:5; Col. 4:1;
Philemon 16) The term is also used metaphorically to describe a
person who is under total obligation to surrender his will to the Lord
Christ. The person becomes the property of the deity. He has been
"immersed into the name of the Father and of the Son and of the
Holy Spirit." (Mat. 28:19)

     On  this  basis,  "Paul  is  a  slave  of  Jesus  Christ."  (Rom. 1:1)
Believers generally are slaves "of obedience that leads to righteousness."
(Rom. 6:16) The apostles were slaves of Christians for the sake of
Jesus. (2 Cor. 4:5) Paul's helpers were slaves of Christ Jesus. (Phil. 1:1)
James identifies himself as "a slave of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ."
(Jas. 1:1) Peter was "a slave and apostle of Jesus Christ." (2 Pet. 1:1)
Jude was "a slave of Jesus Christ." (Jude 1). John the apostle was the
Lord's slave. (Rev. 1:1) The apostles and all believers in the apostolic
age were not averse to being known as slaves. They  considered servility
to be a privilege!

     Most English translations of the scriptures have been reluctant to use
the word slave in such contexts. They have opted for the more palatable
word "servant."  The Holman Christian Standard Bible has broken
away from tradition in this regard. It correctly interprets doulos to mean
"slave."
                                                                                             RD

Copyright 2011

Tartarus

     2 Peter 2:4 in Greek says, "ei gar ho theos aggelon hamartesanton 
ouk epheisato alla seirais zophou tartarosas paredoken eis krisin
teroumenous." The translation is, "For if God did not spare angels when
they sinned, but cast them into Tartarus, and committed them to chains of
deepest darkness to be kept for judgment." What is "Tartarus?"

     Historically, in the ancient Greek writings, Tartarus is found in Acusilaus
Historicus in the 5th century B.C. ; Lydus, Joannes Laurentius Historicus
Mensibus 4.158 in the 6th century A.D. and other sources. (cf. Greek-
English Lexicon, 9th Edition, page 1759, H.G. Liddell, R. Scott, Henry
Jones, and Roderick McKenzie)  According to them it means to cast into
Tartarus or hell.

     Tartarus is also used in the patristic writings and covers a wide range
of meanings such as Hades, the nether world, , hell; as a place of torment
and abode of the Devil; metaphorically of this world, opposite heaven;
synonymously with the Devil. (cf. A Patristic Greek Lexicon, pages
1375, 1376, G. W. H. Lampe, editor)

     E. A. Sophocles informs us in his Greek-English Lexicon of the
Roman and Byzantine Periods, volume 2, page 1070, that tartaros
was one of the compartments of hell and that the verb tartaroo means
to cast into Tartarus.

     In Greek mythology Tartarus is the place of the Titans and of
disobedient gods and is conceived as a gloomy place deep under the
earth. Hesiod Theogonia 720ff ; Homer Illiad 14.279f.

     In the N.T. the word occurs only once and is used in the participle
form in 2 Pet. 2:4. It means to "hold captive in Tartarus ." (A Greek-
English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian
Literature, Walter Bauer and Frederick William Danker, page 991)

     It is sometimes stated that, according to the N.T. Tartarus is the place
where the incorrigibly wicked go between death and the resurrection.
That is not quite right and the reason is, the N.T. says Tartarus is the
place where God cast the angels who sinned. It is not viewed as the
place where all the wicked dead go.

     There is no doubt that the wicked are in a place of punishment
between death and the resurrection. Luke 16:23 teaches they are in
Hades, where they are being tormented in a flame. (Also see 2 Peter 2:9)
But, the only time that Tartarus is mentioned in scripture, it is said to
be the place where God cast the angels who sinned. Therefore, we may
conclude by saying, in the N.T. Tartarus is the place of punishment
where angels who sinned are being held till the day of judgment.
                                                                                           RD

Copyright 2011

Deuteronomy 24:1 "Erwat Dabar"

     Moses wrote, "If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him
because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate
of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, and if after she leaves
his house she becomes the wife of another man, and her second husband dislikes
her and writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from  his
house, or if he dies, then her first husband , who divorced her, is not allowed to
marry her again after she has been defiled. That would be detestable in the eyes
of Yahweh. Do not bring this sin upon the land Yahweh your God is giving you
as an inheritance." (Deut. 24:1-4; TNIV)

     What is the meaning of the phrase "something indecent" (erwat dabar) in
verse1? This has been a point of discussion for many centuries, and we have no
reason to believe it will cease any time soon. Even in the days of Jesus' earthly
service there were at least two dominant rabbinic schools of thought; the Hillelites
and the Shammaites. The school of Hillel allowed divorce for virtually any reason
whatever, and the school of Shammai interpreted Deut. 24 more narrowly, only
on the grounds of sexual immorality, that is, as unchastity on the part of the woman
within marriage. (Cf. m. Git. 9:10; b. Git. 90a; Josephus, Ant. 4.8.23 ...244-59,  
Vit. 76; Philo, Spec. Leg. 5)

     A sampling of English translations of the Hebrew text interpret erwat dabar
in the following manner: "some indecency" (RSV, ESV); "something indecent"
(NIV); "something objectionable" (NRSV); "something improper" (HCSB);
"some uncleanness" (KJV); "some unseemly thing" (ASV); "something obnoxious"
(TANAKH).  This gives us quite a range of interpretations. The Septuagint (LXX)
reads "aschemon pragma,"  literally  "nakedness  of  a  thing"  i.e., a matter of
uncleanness. The Latin Vulgate reads, "aliquam foeditatem" i.e., any filth.

     Hebrew lexicons show a wide range of definitions for erwah. Hebrew and 
Aramaic Dictionary of the Old Testament, George Fohrer, page 213, "indecency."
Student's Hebrew and Chaldee Dictionary, Alexander Harkavy, page 547, "any
filthy thing." Student's Hebrew Lexicon, Benjamin Davies-Edward C. Mitchell,
page 491, " a blemish." Hebrew-English Lexicon To The Old Testament, William
Gesenius, page 653, "shame, filthiness...any defect found in a woman." A Concise 
Hebrew And Aramaic Lexicon Of The Old Testament, page 283, "something
indecent." The Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon of the Old Testament, Koehler-
Baumgartner, volume 2, page 883, "bareness, nakedness." The Brown-Driver-
Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon, page 789, "nakedness of a thing, i.e. probably
indecency, improper behavior." 

     The lexicographical data makes clear that erwah is something indecent, filthy or
shameful or possibly some sort of defect. The question is, what was the "indecency?"
One thing is certain, it was not adultery. Adultery was punishable by execution!
(Deut. 22:22; et.al) If adultery were meant by erwah rather than being allowed to
leave and become the wife of another man, the offending woman would have been
put to death.

     Erwat dabar refers to something the husband found offensive or distasteful in
his wife other than adultery. The phrase is found in the context of purity ordinances
and in this text must refer to something repulsive. It seems to refer to sexually
indecent behavior. It could have been that she was caught with her genitals exposed.
Erwah was commonly used with the meaning "nakedness or genitals" particularly
of a woman. (Cf. Lam. 1:8 where Jerusalem is personified as a lewd woman) One
thing is for certain, it refers to some unspecified form of unacceptable behavior.
The exact details of  what the indecent thing was are yet elusive.
                                                                                                                  RD

Copyright 2011