Life In Abundance

     Jesus affirms "I have come that they may have life and have it in abundance."
(Jno. 10:10, Daly's New Testament Translation) Contextually, Jesus draws a
contrast between himself and "thieves, robbers, and hired hands" who do not
have the best interests of the sheep in their hearts. (verses 7-13) Jesus does. He
laid down his life for the sheep. (v. 15) The "hired hand" abandons the sheep and
runs away when the wolf attacks because he cares nothing for the sheep. (v. 13)

     Jesus did not merely come that the sheep may have life, but that they may
"have it in abundance." The English phrase "have it in abundance" translates the
Greek phrase "perisson echosin." Grammatically, perisson is an accusative
neuter adjective form of perissos. It is used in such passages as (Mat. 5:47)
with the connotation of "extraordinary, in surplus;" (2 Cor. 9:1) where it means
"superfluous, not  necessary;"  (Mk. 6:51)  with   the   meaning   "extremely,
exceedingly."

     Perissos is used in (Jno. 10:10) with the meaning "extraordinary, in surplus,
in abundance." Jesus did not come to bring gold, silver, houses and precious
jewels to his followers. In a sense he himself did not have those things on the
earth. (Lk. 9:58) He  came  to  provide  something  that  transcends  all  this
world has to offer. He came that humanity might have life (zoe), that is, an
experience transcending normal physical life. This sublime quality of "life"
that the Master came to provide exceeds earthly necessity! The NIV-2011
translates the sentence in (Jno. 10:10) in this way, "I have come that they may
have life, and have it to the full." 

     As the grand old song says, "Earthly wealth and fame may never come to me
and a palace fair here mine  may never be, but let come what may, if Christ my
Lord does care, anywhere is home if he is only there!"

     Let us seek "life in abundance." It is in Christ and in order to have it we must
be  in  Christ. We  get  into him by faith (Gal. 3:26-27), repentance (Acts 3:19),
confession (1 Tim. 6:12), and immersion (Rom. 6:3-4). Our sins will be forgiven
and we will "rise to walk in newness of life" on earth and have life "to the full."

                                                                                                             R. Daly

Copyright 2012

"Yom" in Genesis Chapter 1

     Yom occurs  about  2302  times  in Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartensia, the scholarly
critical text of the Hebrew scriptures. It is used 11 times by Moses in Genesis chapter 1
as he was guided to write under the influence of the Holy Spirit of God. (2 Pet. 1:20-21)

     Yom has a range of meaning in various contexts throughout the holy scriptures. It
can mean day or daylight (Gen. 8:22; Jer. 33:25); a day of twenty-four hours (Josh.
10:13; 1 Sam. 18:10); special days (Prov. 25:20; Ezek. 1:18); the day of Yahweh,
that is, a time of judgment (Isa. 2:12; Mal. 3:2); lifetime (Gen. 47:8; Job 38:12); a
period of time (Gen. 24:55; Judges. 19:2), etc.

     There  is  divergence  of   judgment   among   Hebrew   scholars,   exegetes,   and
commentators as to the meaning of yom in Genesis 1. Some scholars conclude that the
word indicates epochs, or long periods of time that includes millions or billions of years.
It is my studied conviction that yom means a day of 24 hours in Genesis 1. I  believe
the  contextual and lexical evidence decisively proves that Moses used the term to
indicate a day of 24 hours.

     The latter part of the Hebrew text of Genesis 1:5 reads, "wayahi ereb wayahi 
boker yom ehad." (and there was evening and there was morning day one.) The  
Septuaginta edited  by Alfred  Rahlfs  reads, "kai egeneto hespera kai egeneto proi 
hemera mia." (and  there  came  evening  and there came morning day one.) With the
exception of the numeral the phrase is repeated in verses 8, 13, 19, 23, and 31.  

     First, the phrase  "evening and morning"  not  only precedes the days of creation,
but  the expression  shows  that  in the mind of Moses parameters are set for the
days of the creation week. In  other  words,  the days were constituted  of  a
period  identified  as  "evening and morning." (...ereb...boker) Moses uses the same
order of terms elsewhere in the Pentateuch. In  Exodus 27:21  we  read,  "In  the  tent
of  meeting,  outside the veil  that  is  before the testimony, Aaron and his sons shall
tend it from  evening to morning before Yahweh. It shall be a statute forever
throughout your generations by the people of Israel." In Leviticus 24:3 Moses  wrote,
"Outside the veil of the testimony, in the tent of meeting, Aaron shall arrange it from
evening to morning before Yahweh regularly. It shall be a statute forever throughout
your generations." The phrase is used in the text to indicate the daily tasks of the
priests. In Numbers 9:21, "from evening until morning" refers to the time of Yahweh's
presence covering the tabernacle all night. The  phrase is not used merely  as  a  poetic
device  to  describe an indefinite period of time, but  it  is  descriptive  of a definite
period of time.

     Second, elsewhere in the Pentateuch Moses compares the days of the creation
week to the days of the Jewish work week. By doing so, he indicates  that  since
God ceased labor on the seventh day, the Israelites are to do the same. He says,
"Remember the Sabbath day, to keep it holy. Six  days  you  shall  labor,  and  do
all your work, but the seventh day is a Sabbath to Yahweh your God...For in six days
Yahweh made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested on the
seventh day. Therefore Yahweh blessed the Sabbath day  and   made   it  holy."
(Exodus 20:8-11)   The  same  information  is   repeated   in  Exodus 31:15-17.
Notice the points of comparison: Yahweh worked six days, the Israelites are to work
six days; Yahweh "rested" (ceased labor) on the seventh day, the people are to cease
labor on the seventh day. If  the   days   of   the creation week were aeons, periods
consisting of thousands, millions, or  billions  of  years,  it  would be a non sequitur
when compared to the days of the Israelite work week! None of the Israelites would
have lived through the first "day" of their work week! The  Israelites  days  of work
were the same as God's days of creation, otherwise the comparison that Moses made
would make no sense, and it would set the Israelites into a state of confusion.

     Third,  Moses  makes  a  clear  distinction  between  "days  and  years" (uleyomim 
weshonim)in Genesis 1:14. If, as some allege, the days in verses 5,8,13,19, 23, 31
and  2:1 are aeons consisting of billions of years, please tell us the length of the "years"
found within the same chapter! If the term "years" is to be understood in the literal
sense, why isn't the word "day" to be understood the same way?

     Fourth, the  scholarly  Hebrew  and  Aramaic lexicons that are sensitive to word
usage, acknowledge that yom is used in Genesis 1 to refer to a day of 24 hours. (Cf.
Lexicon In  Veteris  Testimenti  Libros,  A  Dictionary  of  The Hebrew Old 
Testament  in  English  and  German,  page  372;   A   Concise   Hebrew  and  
Aramaic  Lexicon  of  the  Old Testament, page 130;  Theological  Lexicon  of  
the  Old Testament, volume 2, page 528; The Hebrew and Aramaic Lexicon of 
the Old Testament, The New Koehler-Baumgartner in English, Volume 2, page
399; The Dictionary of Classical Hebrew, volume 4, page 166. Brown-Driver-Briggs
Hebrew English Lexicon makes the following observation about yom, "day as defined
by evening and morning Gen. 1:5,8,13,19,23,31." Hebrew and English Lexicon of 
the Old Testament, page 398).

     It seems that some professors, preachers, and commentators are trying to adapt
the Bible's account of creation to pseudo-science  and  the  theories  of  theistic  and
atheistic evolution. We must remember that God is the author of all true science, and
all efforts to make God fit a human mold are futile!
                                                                                                                    R. Daly

Copyright 2011



    

All Greek-English Lexicons Are Not Equal

     Greek lexicons are indispensable for New Testament research. Nevertheless the
student must use lexicons with the same discretion as he would use commentaries,
grammars and other uninspired resources. Some lexicons contain doctrinal and
technical errors. These errors are often due to sectarian prejudices and lack of
thoroughness in examining and reporting the facts contained in the source materials
that are cited. A person must be very cautious in citing definitions from a lexicon in
an effort to determine word meaning.

     Alexander Souter's Pocket Lexicon To The Greek New Testament was
published in 1916. It was republished by Hendrickson Publishers, and revised and
edited by Mark A. House in 2008, under the title Compact Greek-English Lexicon 
of The New Testament. It contains some inexcusable errors that affect the
interpretation of the New Testament. It remains a useful reference work if  it is used
in conjunction with more recent scholarly lexicons. Let us note a couple of fundamental
examples where the lexicon misses the mark.

     On page 46 of the original lexicon and page 37 of the revision, baptizo is defined
as, "lit. I dip, submerge, but specifically of ceremonial dipping (whether immersion
or affusion)..." The revision says parenthetically (whether immersion or pouring). First,
no original source material is cited that indicates baptizo is used of a ceremonial
dipping (whether by immersion or pouring). Second, no biblical text is cited that
illustrates such meaning. Third, his explanation of baptizo (whether immersion or
pouring) is self contradictory. Baptizo cannot be by immersion or pouring! As he
stated, the verb baptizo means "I dip, submerge." Actually, it is more than a mere
contradiction; he is wrong. (Romans 6:3-4; Colossians 2:12)

     On page 286 of his original lexicon and 189 of the revision, psallo is defined as,
"I play on the harp (or other stringed instrument). The problem is the same. No
original source material is cited to sustain the definition, and no biblical evidence is
cited that illustrates the alleged meaning. He is relying on the connotation of psallo
as it is sometimes used in the Septuagint. But, his work is titled A Pocket Lexicon 
To The New Testament. Therefore, he should have given evidence from the literature
contemporary with the New Testament. He failed to do this and renders his lexicon
unsatisfactory at this place.

     Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek lexicons are are not inerrant. Their authors and
compilers are not guided by the Holy Spirit, therefore they must be used with caution.
The student of the sacred scriptures should always use more than one lexicon, and
he should be as familiar as possible with original sources. Most of all he should be
intimately familiar with the word of God! Study God's word lexically and contextually.

                                                                                                                      R. Daly

Copyright 2011

    

"Into The Name"

     The phrase "into the name" (eis to onoma) occurs several times in the
New Testament. It occurs at least four times in connection with immersion.
Jesus told his apostles to immerse believers "into the name of the Father
and   of   the    Son    and    of    the    Holy    Spirit." (Matthew 28:19)
Luke tells us the people of Samaria "had been immersed into the name of
the Lord Jesus." (Acts 8:16) The same writer says about twelve men in
Ephesus "were immersed into the name of the Lord Jesus." (Acts 19:5)
A variation is found in 1 Cor. 1:15. Paul asked the Corinthians if they had
been immersed into his name? (eis to emon onoma). The American Standard
Version-1901 consistently translates the phrase as "into the name" in all of its
occurrences in 1 Corinthians and the book of Acts. Other English versions
translate the phrase literally sometimes, and at other times they translate it with
the words "in the name." In the texts where they do not translate it literally, they
generally place the literal rendering in the margin or the footnotes. (RSV; NASB;
NIV; NRSV; NET; ESV; TNIV; NIV-2011) 

     What does it mean to be immersed "into the name" of someone? Adolf
Deissmann, in his book Bible Studies, in which he notes the contributions of
the papyri and inscriptions to the study of the New Testament, says, "Just as,
in the Inscription, to buy into the name of God means to buy so that the
article bought belongs to God, so also the idea underlying, e.g., the
expressions to baptise into the name of the Lord, or to believe into the
name of the Son of God, is that baptism or faith constitutes the belonging
to God or to the Son of God ." (page 146)

     J.H. Moulton and George Milligan state in their Vocabulary of the Greek 
Testament, page 451, that "The phrase eis to onoma tinos is frequent in the
papyri with reference to payments made "to the account of any one...The usage
is of interest in connexion with Mt. 28:19, where the meaning would seem to
be "baptized into the possession of the Father, etc." Bauer-Danker-Arndt-
Gingrich's Greek-English Lexicon Of The New Testament and Other
Early Christian Literature concurs. The lexicon says on page 713, "Through
baptism eis to onoma tinos those who are baptized become the possession
of and come under the dedicated protection of the one whose name they bear."

     This is certainly true when we consider Paul's use of a similar phrase in the
Corinthian letter. The Corinthians were claiming to be "of Paul; of Apollos;
of Cephas; and of Christ." Paul asks them, "Is Christ divided? Was Paul
crucified for you? Or were you immersed into the name of Paul? I thank God
that I immersed none of you, except Crispus and Gaius; lest any one should
say that you were immersed into my name." (1 Cor. 1:13-14)  Paul's point
is this: you cannot rightly claim to be "of" Paul because you were not immersed
"into" my name. And since you were not immersed "into" my name, you do
not owe your allegiance to me, for I do not possess you. You do not belong
to me, you belong to Christ! Therefore, to be immersed "into the name of
the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit" is to become their "property,"
having entered into relationship with them. Christians belong to the Father,
Son, and the Holy Spirit.
                                                                                                   RD

Copyright 2011

Did Yahweh Remove Their Chariot Wheels?

     The story of the children of Israel going into the midst of the Red Sea is one
of the great narratives in the Old Testament. It demonstrates God's love for and
protection of his people. It also demonstrates God's utter hatred of sin and the
destruction that awaits those who oppose God.

     There is a key difference among English versions within the context of
Exodus chapter 14. We learn that the Egyptians pursued the Israelites and
went in after them into the midst of the sea. "And in the morning watch Yahweh
in the pillar of cloud looked down on the Egyptian forces and threw them into
confusion." (Ex. 14:24)

     In verse 25, some translations say Yahweh "jammed the wheels of their
chariots. " (NET; TNIV; NIV-2011) Others read similarly by saying he
"clogged their chariot wheels." (RSV; ESV) The TANAKH (Jewish Publication's
Society's translation, 1985) says Yahweh "locked the wheels of their chariots."
Those translations follow the reading of the Septuagint, Samaritan Pentateuch,
and the Syriac instead of the Hebrew text. The translators believe the Hebrew
root is 'asar, meaning to bind, and could contextually carry the connotative
meaning, "to clog," perhaps by sinking into the wet sand of the Red Sea.

     The ASV reads, "And he took off their chariot wheels," followed by the
NIV which says, "He made the wheels of their chariots come off." The KJV
like the ASV says "And took off their chariot wheels." The KJV, ASV, and
NIV translate the Hebrew text as it stands. The Hebrew word in the traditional
text is wayyasar, meaning "to turn aside," (The NASB-71 and NASB-95
say "He caused their chariot wheels to swerve.") Wayyasar is likely used in
the sense of removing the wheels. The question is, which rendering is to be
preferred---'asar, jammed in the sense of clogging or locking their chariot
wheels, or wayyasar, removed their chariot wheels?

     Many of the translators and commentators who work with this portion of the
Hebrew text reason, "Would a wheelless chariot drive 'with heaviness,' or would
it just grind to a halt?' " (Exodus 1-18, page 500, W.H.C. Propp, Anchor Bible 
Commentary) Others see the phrase "removed their chariot wheels" as an
"interpretive translation of the Hebrew." (Exodus, page 343, Douglas K. Stuart,
The New American  Commentary)

     In response to the first statement, "Would a wheelless chariot drive 'with
heaviness?', the answer is a definite yes. A horse can  pull  a "wheelless" chariot
just as surely as he can pull a sled, wagon, and cart without wheels. And they
are driven with "heaviness." As to whether translating wayyasar as "removed"
or "took off" is an interpretive translation of the Hebrew. The Hebrew word
has a range of meanings, one of which is "to remove." (The Hebrew and
Aramaic Lexicon of the old Testament, volume 2, page 748)

     Translators need compelling reasons before they depart from the traditional
Hebrew text of the Old Testament. Amending the Hebrew text may be necessary
when there are legitimate grounds to do so, but in my judgment, such is not
necessary in Ex. 14:25. No insurmountable difficulties arise when wayyasar
remains in the text and is translated as "removed" or "took off."
                                                                                                       RD

Copyright 2011
   

Orthotomeo

     One of the key texts in which the Greek verb orthotomeo appears is
2 Tim. 2:15. The KJV translates orthotomeo with the phrase "rightly dividing."
The ASV says "handling aright." The RSV says "rightly handling."

     Many expositors of the scriptures have assumed that Paul is informing
Timothy to make a proper division of the Old and New Testaments. We can be
certain that such is not what the apostle is telling Timothy to do in this text.

     In ancient Greek orthotomeo literally meant to "cut a path in a straight
direction, or to cut a road across country in a straight direction." (BDAG, p.722)
Paul is using  orthotomeo figuratively. This figurative use means, to guide along a
straight path, that is, do not deviate to the left or right by quarreling about words;
it is of no value, and only ruins those who listen. The context of 2 Tim. 2, especially
verses 14 and 16, seems to lead to this conclusion. Many of the modern translations
make this clear. The NRSV says, "rightly explaining." The NIV 2011 says, "correctly
handles." The HCSB says, "correctly teaching." Each of the aforementioned
translations recognize the figurative use Paul is making of the Greek verb.

     Timothy, the "man of God" (1 Tim. 6:11; 2 Tim. 3:17) has the responsibility to
be certain that he deals honestly with the sacred writings. (2 Cor. 2:17; 4:2) He
must be careful not to believe, teach, or practice anything that is not in harmony
with God's will. He must boldly and unashamedly present God's message, handling
it accurately and explaining it correctly.

     We live at a time, as was true in Timothy's day, when many spurious doctrines
and practices abound among the Lord's people and in the religious world at large.
The issues should be addressed, but we must be careful not to be led into a
discussion of foolish and insignificant matters. We should also avoid endless
controversies that are not substantive in nature.

     We must do as Paul instructed Timothy, orthotomounta ton logon tes aletheias;
hold a straight course (as you correctly explain) the word of truth, and do not be
detoured by unfounded opinions that result from godless chatter.
                                                                                                          RD

Copyright 2011
                         

Monogenes

     The adjective monogenes is used in the Septuagint (Judges 11:34; Psa. 21:21;
24:16; 34:17), and in the Greek N.T. (Lk. 7:12; 8:42; 9:38; Jno. 1:14, 18; 3:16,
18; Heb. 11:17; 1 Jno. 4:9)

     The older English versions of the N.T. translate monogenes with the phrase
"only begotten," though that is not what the word means. Monogenes means
that which is the only one of its kind within a specific relationship, one and only,
only, unique; single of its kind. The comprehensive Greek lexicons and word
books of N.T. Greek indicate that such is the case. (cf. BDAG, p. 658; Thayer,
pages 417-418; Moulton-Milligan, pages 416-417, etc.)

     In Lk. 7:12 monogenes is used of "an only son of his mother." In Lk. 8:42 it
is used of  Jairus' "only daughter." In Lk. 9:38 it is used of a man's "only child."
There is a sense of strong personal attachment in each of these passages. The
"only son," "only daughter," and "only child" were obviously beloved, or dearly
loved.

     In Jno. 1:14 monogenes is used to describe Jesus as "the only  Son from
the Father." (ESV) The NIV 2011 uses the phrase "one and only Son" in order
to convey both the Son's uniqueness and the Father's personal attachment to
him. In Jno. 1:18 monogenes conveys the Son's uniqueness in that he is in
closest relationship with the Father and he makes the Father known in a way
that no one else does. In Jno. 3:16 monogenes  implies that the Son is unique
and precious to the Father, and as a demonstration of his love for humanity,
God gave him to be sacrificed for the whole sinful world. The distinctiveness
and uniqueness of God's Son are also seen in Jno. 3:18, for it is through him
and in his name that salvation is granted.

     In Heb. 11:17 Isaac is called the monogenes son of Abraham. He was
Abraham's unique son in that he was the one through whom Yahweh promised
descendants too numerous to count. "It is through Isaac that descendants shall
be named for you." (Heb. 11:18; NRSV)

     In 1 Jno. 4:9 monogenes is used of Jesus as the unique Son of God who
was sent into the world, "so that we might live through him." (ESV) God sent
his beloved, one of a kind Son to be the means through which those who believe
in and obey him might have life!

     Monogenes is used in the N.T. to convey the idea of uniqueness, one and
only, the only one of its kind, and by extension it includes a strong personal
attachment to that which is "one and only."
                                                                                                     Ron Daly

Copyright 2011